On Tue, May 07, 2013 at 05:15:04PM -0400, random832@fastmail.us wrote:
On Tue, May 7, 2013, at 16:01, Marc Lehmann wrote:
Yes, at least one timezone exists for any region, by definition, as long as that region actually has a physical location, as the timezone identifiers are meant to (roughly) identify the largest city within a region (where region is not defined by political boundaries).
This is where you are mistaken.
You surely have some evidence to back this up? The timezone database has always defined timezone regions that way. Saying it ain't so doesn't make it so.
The regions are _absolutely_ defined by political boundaries. It's why
That is your _goal_, yes, but where does it say so? For one thing, the ISO 3166 codes do not define regions nor political boundaries, nor do the timezone identifier define political boundaries (but regions). It really seems to me that you want to unilaterally redefine the meaning of timezones and regions to further your political agenda - if you interpret the timezone database data traditionally and without prejuduice it doesn't say what you wish it to say. The political interpretation of the data is yours alone. -- The choice of a Deliantra, the free code+content MORPG -----==- _GNU_ http://www.deliantra.net ----==-- _ generation ---==---(_)__ __ ____ __ Marc Lehmann --==---/ / _ \/ // /\ \/ / schmorp@schmorp.de -=====/_/_//_/\_,_/ /_/\_\