Re: [tz] Proposal to use Asia/Tel_Aviv for Israel - Jerusalem is not internationally recognized as part of Israel
On Tue, May 07, 2013 at 05:15:04PM -0400, random832@fastmail.us wrote:
On Tue, May 7, 2013, at 16:01, Marc Lehmann wrote:
Yes, at least one timezone exists for any region, by definition, as long as that region actually has a physical location, as the timezone identifiers are meant to (roughly) identify the largest city within a region (where region is not defined by political boundaries).
This is where you are mistaken.
You surely have some evidence to back this up? The timezone database has always defined timezone regions that way. Saying it ain't so doesn't make it so.
The regions are _absolutely_ defined by political boundaries. It's why
That is your _goal_, yes, but where does it say so? For one thing, the ISO 3166 codes do not define regions nor political boundaries, nor do the timezone identifier define political boundaries (but regions). It really seems to me that you want to unilaterally redefine the meaning of timezones and regions to further your political agenda - if you interpret the timezone database data traditionally and without prejuduice it doesn't say what you wish it to say. The political interpretation of the data is yours alone. -- The choice of a Deliantra, the free code+content MORPG -----==- _GNU_ http://www.deliantra.net ----==-- _ generation ---==---(_)__ __ ____ __ Marc Lehmann --==---/ / _ \/ // /\ \/ / schmorp@schmorp.de -=====/_/_//_/\_,_/ /_/\_\
On Wed, May 8, 2013, at 8:23, Marc Lehmann wrote:
The regions are _absolutely_ defined by political boundaries. It's why
That is your _goal_, yes, but where does it say so?
in the Theory file. "Include at least one location per time zone rule set per country." You've been avoiding the word "country" for some reason, and I've gone along with it, but it's certainly in the documentation. The dispute is over whether the city currently being used to name this zone is in the country that the zone is intended to serve or not. Whether a city is in a country is certainly a question of political boundaries, and I can't imagine what kind of mental contortions you would have to go through to justify claiming otherwise.
On Wed, May 08, 2013 at 10:59:45AM -0400, random832@fastmail.us wrote:
On Wed, May 8, 2013, at 8:23, Marc Lehmann wrote:
The regions are _absolutely_ defined by political boundaries. It's why
That is your _goal_, yes, but where does it say so?
in the Theory file. "Include at least one location per time zone rule set per country."
In context, that seems to mean what I said, yes... The point is that that absolute definition is your goal, and not written down in the Theory file, ignoring out-of-context quoting (general rules vs. absolute definitions, and this not being applicable to the case in question).
You've been avoiding the word "country" for some reason, and I've gone along with it, but it's certainly in the documentation.
What the heck, I am not avoiding anything. I *replied* to a mail that used that term:
From: David Patte ₯ <dpatte@relativedata.com> Message-ID: <518942F6.4030302@relativedata.com>
that A) the database explicitly identifies what political boundary each
And he didn't even *mention* the word country in the part I replied to. Are you attempting to single-sidedly change the topic of this subthread and then accuse others of not using your terms or what?
Whether a city is in a country is certainly a question of political boundaries, and I can't imagine what kind of mental contortions you would have to go through to justify claiming otherwise.
I am obviously not justifying anything you claim. Please get your facts and claims right. In any case, I will not comment further on this topic, as exchanging accusations isn't leading anywhere. -- The choice of a Deliantra, the free code+content MORPG -----==- _GNU_ http://www.deliantra.net ----==-- _ generation ---==---(_)__ __ ____ __ Marc Lehmann --==---/ / _ \/ // /\ \/ / schmorp@schmorp.de -=====/_/_//_/\_,_/ /_/\_\
On Thu, May 9, 2013, at 16:57, Marc Lehmann wrote:
On Wed, May 08, 2013 at 10:59:45AM -0400, random832@fastmail.us wrote:
On Wed, May 8, 2013, at 8:23, Marc Lehmann wrote:
The regions are _absolutely_ defined by political boundaries. It's why
That is your _goal_, yes, but where does it say so?
in the Theory file. "Include at least one location per time zone rule set per country."
In context, that seems to mean what I said, yes...
"countries" are political units. I shouldn't have to say this.
The point is that that absolute definition is your goal, and not written down in the Theory file, ignoring out-of-context quoting (general rules vs. absolute definitions, and this not being applicable to the case in question).
How is this not applicable to the case in question? The timezone we are discussing is that of a region consisting of an entire country, not just one city, and was formerly named after a different city. It was changed based on the argument that it should be the largest city in the region. The region this is problematic is because people dispute whether this city is in fact in the region it represents.
You've been avoiding the word "country" for some reason, and I've gone along with it, but it's certainly in the documentation.
What the heck, I am not avoiding anything. I *replied* to a mail that used that term:
But in _your_ message you kept saying "regions" as though they are arbitrary (or, rather, based solely on where clocks are set to the same time) rather than being divisions of countries. You've even _explicitly_ claimed they're not based on political boundaries (i.e. they are not divisions of countries). I really did get the impression you were carefully avoiding acknowledging that, according to the Theory file, each timezone belongs to exactly one country and therefore should be named after a city _in that country_. If I was mistaken, I'm sorry. I still don't understand _how_ you can think political boundaries aren't relevant when we are talking about regions that _each country_ is divided into one or more of. -- Random832
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