May 7, 2013
9:02 p.m.
On Tue, May 7, 2013, at 16:01, Marc Lehmann wrote:
Yes, at least one timezone exists for any region, by definition, as long as that region actually has a physical location, as the timezone identifiers are meant to (roughly) identify the largest city within a region (where region is not defined by political boundaries).
This is where you are mistaken. The regions are _absolutely_ defined by political boundaries. It's why we have separate regions for Norway, Denmark, and Sweden, instead of one for all of them; it's why we have a separate region for that little bit of Germany that follows Switzerland's timezone (Europe/Busingen), instead of simply drawing a single region around it and Europe/Zurich.