Brian Inglis said:
My understanding (and, no, I don't have references) is that all of Europe had 29th February (whether the leap day is VI Kal.Mar. or 29th February is a notational matter and not relevant) in the same Februaries, so that the 29th February would be in 1743 and 1747 in England but in 1744 and 1748 in Scotland *but it's the same February*.
So the new year celebrated in that 12 month period was used to determine when leap years occurred.
That would appear to be the case, yes.
The leap day was apparently still considered effectively to be added after ante diem sexto Kalendis Martis (February 24), giving ante diem bis sextus Kalendis Martis, second sixth (inclusive count) day before March 1, which is why that is not mentioned in the bull.
It was probably not until the common use of Hindu-Arabic numerals replacing Roman numerals in calendars (apparently undocumented so far) when February having 29 days gave rise to the belief that the added day was the 29th.
Agreed. In my text quoted above I should perhaps have written "... had a 29-day February ...". -- Clive D.W. Feather | If you lie to the compiler, Email: clive@davros.org | it will get its revenge. Web: http://www.davros.org | - Henry Spencer Mobile: +44 7973 377646